When partner makes a takeout double or a balance of some sort quite often a cuebid is used to show a good hand or request partner to bid a suit or show support. Is this cuebid forcing to game though? The Bridge World has a rule for such cuebids. They say a cuebid is forcing to game unless a suit is bid twice. This is similar to how we play 2/1 in competition. A 2/1 is forcing to game unless your suit is rebid. Note they do not say a suit is rebid but bid twice. This means a simple raise is not forcing in a cue-bidding auction. These sequences are the only outs allowed in these cue-bidding auctions. All other bids are forcing until game is reached. This understanding prevents jumping to game because you are afraid your bid is not forcing after a cuebid has been made. Relax, keep the bidding low, as partner is not allowed to pass until a suit has been bid twice or you have reached game.
1 | Pass | Pass | Dbl |
Pass | 2 | Pass | 2 |
Pass | 3* | Pass | ? |
* 3 is absolutely forcing, the doubler cannot pass. Now the doubler bids 3 and partner bids 4. This can be passed below game as a suit has been bid twice.
1 | Dbl | Pass | 2 |
Pass | 3 | Pass | 3 |
Pass | 3 | Pass | 4* |
* This can be passed!
1 | Dbl | Pass | 2 |
Pass | 2 | Pass | 3* |
* This sequence is not forcing as a suit has been bid twice.
You cannot cuebid with weak hands as a cuebid does promise one more bid. Partner does not have to jump over a cuebid with a big hand because the cue bidder must bid again. Qxxxx Qxxxx x xx. You cannot cuebid 2 with this hand and drop partner in 2 of a major. This is horrible bidding. With weak hands just pick a suit.
This cue-bidding understanding allows Scrambling to find the best contract. You hold:
Ax xxx AJxx Kxxx and the auction goes:
1 | Pass | Pass | Dbl |
Pass | 2 | Pass | 2 |
Pass | 3 | Pass | 3 |
Pass | 4 | Pass | ? |
This sequence allows partner to pass with Kxxx xx KQxx Axx or carry on to game with Kxxxx x KQxx AQx
Great, we have the Scrambling 2NT, Scrambling 2 and now the Scrambling cuebid.
We see no reason that cuebids should be forcing to game by opener or responder either. Quite often you are groping for a NT game with an implied minor suit fit. If you strike out there is no need to be forced to an 11 trick contract. If a suit has been bid twice, you can escape. 1 - 1 - 2 - P, with xx QJx AKxxxx AQ. You bid 2 as a grope for 3NT and partner bids 3. You now bid 3 so it is not forcing by the rule? If you bid anything else, you are on a game force. Partner with xx Kxx Qxxx KJxx passes 3.
When the opponents pre-empt at the 3 level in a major and partner bids a minor at the 4 level, there is a specialized use for a cuebid in their major. It is KCB as 4NT is needed as a place to play the contract. This understanding blends in with Thrump doubles? If you had a solid minor, you might have chosen a Thrump double. If you bid 4 of a minor, there is an inference of distribution or a huge hand. 4NT is to play so pulling 4NT to your minor should be a slam try.
In a auction where you could have raised partner directly with an invitational jump, of course a cuebid is a game force when you support partner. When you have other invitational bids available, a cuebid is a game force.
3NT is an important goal in Bridge. We even define cuebids by whether they are below 3NT or not. Cuebids at the 4 level and above generally are pure cuebids which show a control. Cuebids below 3NT can be just stoppers, a suit and groping for 3NT. They can be asking cuebids or telling cuebids under 3NT. This treatment is in accordance with game before slam philosophy or hand evaluation concept.
1 - 2 - 2 cuebid? Not necessarily. This could just be a 4 card heart suit for 3NT or heart game purposes. When the bidding subsequently takes off, it was a cuebid but assume it was a natural suit orNT try initially.
Inverted Minors need cue-bidding understandings. Try this sequence
1 | Pass | 2 | Pass |
3 | Pass | 3 |
3 should be a natural NT grope (telling) or a 4 card heart suit so opener will bid 3NT with a club stopper but not spades stopped. Responder is expected to pull to 4 without spades stopped. A 3 bid by opener shows spades and denies a club stopper. A 3 grope by responder should show spades, denying one or both of the other suits for NT purposes. Responder will only bid 3NT with both stopped and 4 with only one or none. When opener had both black suits stopped, the 3 rebid initially was questionable.
When the opponents are in the auction, a cuebid of their suit is a grope for 3NT. This is called the Western Cuebid. The Western Cuebid is used in a contested auction to ask partner to bid 3NT with a stopper in the opponent's suit, for the purpose of playing that contract. Without a stopper, partner can make a non forcing, natural suit bid. Western cues are usually used when a partnership are both bidding different suits in a contested auction but cannot locate a playable suit game contract. There is usually an implied minor fit somewhere but it is not a requirement. The PITBULLS are already quite familiar with examples of Western Cuebids where the opponents have overcalled a suit. However, when the opponents have bid 2 suits, this is the understanding:
1 | 1 | 1 | 2 |
2 | 3 | 3* |
* Showing a heart stopper and asking partner to bid 3NT with a club stopper. When looking for 3NT after the opponents have bid two suits, a cue-bid of either one shows, rather than asks for, a stopper in that suit.
There are also delicate bidding auctions where partner is in effect making an asking cue bid with no opponents in the auction!. The inference is that partner would have bid 3NT herself with a stopper in that suit.
Examples:
1 | 1 | 1 | Pass |
2 | Pass | 3* | Pass |
3* |
* I have limited my hand with 3 invitational, partner has limited his hand by a 2 rebid. When partner has heart values, he would bid 3NT himself so 3 asks partner to bid 3NT with a heart stopper!
1 | Pass | 1 | Pass |
2 | Pass | 2 | Pass |
2* |
* It is silly to show a spade stopper as the wrong side is playing the NT. This is steering the NT to partner's hand if there is a spade stopper and showing a healthy 3 rebid. This is a stronger auction than bidding 3 again without a spade stopper. A 3 bid would just say get out of my face.
1 | Pass | 1NT | Pass |
2 | Pass | 3 | Pass |
3* |
* Diamond values heading towards 3NT. Bid 3NT when you have spades.
A rubber player would not bid this way, instead leaping to 3NT. Opening leader would have to guess between spades and diamonds.
1 | Pass | 1 | Pass |
2 | Pass | 3 | Pass |
3* | Pass | 3NT |
* Both sides have limited their hands. 3 suits bid, so 4th suit asks for a stopper!
There is a generalization that differentiates between an asking and telling cuebid. This is based on the number of suits already bid. The following is from the net:
Telling and Asking Cuebids
Cuebids below 3NT are usually attempts to reach 3NT. When two suits have been bid, the cuebid of the third suit is a Telling Cuebid, looking for a stopper in the fourth suit. When three suits have been bid, the cuebid of the fourth suit is an Asking Cuebid, asking for a stopper in that suit.
1 | Pass | 2 | Pass |
3 | Pass | 3* |
* telling cuebid. 3 suits bid.
1 | Pass | 2 | Pass |
3 | Pass | 3* |
* asking cuebid 4th suit. Responder should bid 3NT with diamonds unless very strong.
In cue bidding auctions when the opponents double one of your bids, the redouble is a cuebid showing 2nd or 1st control of the suit. I think this should be true in auctions above 3NT but when we are groping or making a Western cue, the redouble can have a different meaning. Maurice plays the redouble as a partial stopper Qx or Jxx or 10xxx. May as well use it for something as a direct NT bid shows the full stopper.
In the game of Bridge sometimes there can be confusion between interpreting a bid as cuebid or a suit. The first rule of cue-bidding is establishing a fit early. Once you have found a fit, you do not try and find a 2nd fit. Therefore, all subsequent bids are interpreted as cuebids. When you transfer after a NT opening, establish the fit at the earliest convenience so that cuebids come into play.
1NT | Pass | 2 | Pass |
2 | Pass | 3 | Pass |
3 | Pass | 4* |
* Since we have established a spade fit, 4 and all other bids afterwards are cuebids. What if partner in this auction bid 3 after 3 what would that mean? Since she did not establish trump as spades, 3 sets the suit as diamonds. Very important in these auctions.
Another rule for cuebids is game before slam. In other words when a bid can be interpreted as a cuebid towards slam or an attempt to find a game, game takes precedence.
1 | Pass | 2 | Pass |
4* | Pass | 4 |
* 4 was a splinter but 4 is not a cuebid as game takes precedence.
1 | pass | 1 | 3 |
Pass | 4 | 5* |
* 5 is game so not a cuebid. Game takes precedence when no fit established prior in the auction.
Sometimes you can tell from the auction whether a bid is a cuebid or a suit. When you circumvent a basic cue-bidding rule of cue-bidding your lowest ranking suit first, the bid should be interpreted as a suit rather than a cuebid.
2 | Pass | 2 | Pass |
2 | Pass | 3 | Pass |
4 | Pass | ? |
* Surely a 2 opener has a lower ranking control to bid. The 4 bid must be a suit, asking how you fit the heart suit for slam purposes.
The 4 level should be reserved for cuebids when partner has jumped the bidding in her suit or made a strong jump shift.
1 | Pass | 1 | Pass |
3 | Pass | ? |
With Jxxxx Kx x AQ10xx, bid 3NT instead of 4. Partner is going to misinterpret 4 as a cuebid in support of diamonds.
1 | Pass | 1NT | Pass |
3 | Pass | ? |
With xx AKxxKJ10x xxx, cuebid 4 as you are too strong to bid 4 but not strong enough to take control with KCB. The 4 level rule makes 4 a cuebid rather than a suit.
Beware of implied cuebids?. The auction goes:
4 | Dbl | Pass | 4 |
Pass | 5 | Pass | ? |
Is this a cuebid in support of spades? Certainly not, as the doubler has shown a two suiter in clubs and hearts. In many pre-emptive auctions, partner is forced to double without support for all suits so Equal Level Conversion must take place even at the 5 level. If it can be natural, it is.
Back in the Goren days, a cuebid of the opponents suit did not mean limit raise or better, or asking for a stopper or Michaels. The cuebid meant, I had a hand in the demand two bid range. Over the years, cue-bidding of the opponent's suit developed more sophisticated meanings and the Goren style cuebids became virtually extinct.
Not quite extinct though. I recover the Goren cuebids in two instances. Pre-empts at the 3 level or higher and also in the balancing spot. These are two Bridge situations where very strong single suiters or two suiters are almost impossible to describe. In fact, Goren cuebids help define takeout doubles in these two scenarios. When the opponents pre-empt at the 3 level or above, a double can never be a single suited hand. You would jump (never pre-empt over a pre-empt) or make a Goren style cuebid. This understanding helps with Equal Level Conversion understandings in pre-emptive or balancing situations. This cuebid two suit understanding also prevents penalty conversion disasters. You just do not double with a single suited hand, period. A takeout double now means two or more suits. Partner is allowed to convert for penalty but it is impossible to convert a cuebid for penalty.
In the balancing spot, there are many strong distributional one suiters or two suiters where you do not want partner converting the double. Enter the Goren style cuebid. A weak Michaels hand can be handled by overcalling and an intermediate Michaels hand can be handled by doubling. Of course, the strong Michaels hands are covered by the Goren cuebid and not the Michaels cuebid. This cuebid is not ambiguous as to strength.
OK let's bid a hand. They open 3 and you hold AKQJxxx void AJ10x KJ so avoid a takeout double or a leap to game. This hand was built for the Goren cuebid. You bid 4 and partner leaps to 6! You bid 6 and partner trusts your cuebid and on to the grand slam with xxx xx KQxxx AQx. Partner just has to apply strong twos type of thinking in these auction to visualize partner's hand. The Goren cuebid gave a good reference point for the hand type. Would you have opened a demand two bid or very close?
The trouble with playing non Goren two bids over 3 level pre-empts as that you must bid again to show your strong hand. Say you held AKQxx KQ1098x xx void, they open 3. Playing Goren cuebids this is easy as you bid 4. You now brought partner into the picture so you can safely pass 4. What if you do not have this understanding, so you bid 5 as a slam try? Unlucky as they cash the diamond AK and the heart Ace for one down. Ambiguity at the 4 level is not a good idea.
Partner must co-operate after a Goren cuebid though. A Goren cuebid can show any 2 suiter. An auction was butchered when partner did not follow a simple Bridge rule over Goren cuebids, respond longer suit first. 3 - P - P - 4 K10xx x Qxxxx Kxx and you bid 4 not 4. When partner has a 2 suiter in the majors, she will correct to 4. You now show your spades. Bidding up the line is also important in there types of auctions when you are equal length. Anyway partner held AJ AKxxxx AKxxx void and once the K gets cuebid, partner bids 7. My partner assumed a two suiter in the majors and bid 4. Now reaching 7 was near impossible.
Pre-empts and light openers were designed to impede you from your best spot. Goren cuebids used in pre-emptive and balancing situations are a way of fighting back. These cuebid understandings are highly recommended. One thought though, I still play Michaels cuebids over pre-empts on the terrorist vulnerability. I find another way to show my demand two on this one vulnerability.
A cuebid is one of the most if not the most ambiguous bid in Bridge. The cuebid of the opponent's suit must be interpreted in the context of the bidding. The level in which you make the cuebid has a bearing on how partner interprets the cuebid. When the cuebid is beyond 3NT, its meaning should be narrowed down to a fit for partner or a general strong hand and just forcing partner another round. Even this meaning is too much of a generalization as it could mean a void and pick a suit between the unbid alternatives.
Since a cuebid is ambiguous, partner must try to interpret its meaning. This means you should leave some read crumbs so partner has a chance to comprehend the bid. You should not just cuebid as a waiting bid or some nebulous reason. Partner will never tune into your wavelength. cuebids and disasters are a common occurrence in Bridge. The competitive double is replacing some old meanings of doubles in competitive auctions.
What partner had done or not done helps in determining the meaning of a cuebid. Whether you are a passed hand or partner is a passed hand is an important consideration. You are a passed hand with AJ10 xx AJxxx Jxx, LHO opens 1. Vulnerable partner bids 3 which is systemic saying you have a strong one suiter and asks partner to bid 3NT with a stopper in the opponent's suit. I like to have the further understanding that when you do not have the stopper, 4 means less than 2 controls and 4 shows 2 or more. This will assist partner with her huge one suiter.
OK say you have not discussed the above agreement, so you bid 4 as a passed hand, what should that mean? You are a passed hand, so the bid should be interpreted in that context. When partner's suit is clubs, you have just forced the contract to game. This is what I intended with my 4 bid. So partner now cuebids 4 with Kx x KQx AKQ10987, you bid 6 so that is +1370. Partner cuebids to a passed hand partner or otherwise to show extra for the bid she has already shown partner. This is additional information for partner to use. If partner has what she has already announced, say Kx x 10xx AKQ10987 this is what partner would expect for a 3bid. You would not cuebid but since partner has forced you to game, you bid it. This makes +600 with your 12 HCP and a passed hand partner.
If partner were not a passed hand and maybe unlimited should you bid 4 as a courtesy? I do not think so as the 3 bid is a systemic bid which can have a very wide range. Whenever you have a high range, you must cuebid to show extra. This is one of the most basic uses of a cuebid. The other common use for a cuebid is to show a fit for partner.
My partners and I have an understanding that when the opponents bid 4 of a major in our auction, 4NT is not Blackwood but is interpreted as a cuebid showing a distributional 2 suiter. Why singlehandedly bid one suit, when you have two of them? 4NT is a way of inviting partner to the party at the high altitude of the 5 level. A D.S.I.P. or co-operative double shows the unbid suits also but more defense with less distribution. The 4NT bid shows a whole lot of distribution with usually no fit for partner's suit.
One of the most common uses for a cuebid is after a takeout double. There are two main uses for a cuebid in this context. One is showing a 2 suiter so you are asking partner to choose one of them. The other reason for a cuebid in this context is showing a hand that is too strong to bid naturally. My partner holds KQxxxx xxxx A Kx and the auction goes:
1 | Dbl | Pass | 2 |
Pass | 3 | 4 | 4 |
So what is going on? Partner is bidding 4 yet he did not bid 2 or 4 directly so he has defined his cuebid as a hand too strong to bid 4 originally. I bid 5 and we get to our 6 which makes an over-trick. Tough to get to our grand slam but 6 is worth a lot of IMPS. He did not pass 4 to give me the option of doubling 4, so he cannot hold a minimum defensive hand. Bidding in front of partner shows a distributional slam try type of hand. Do not forget that cuebids and forcing passes go together. A cuebid means your side owns the auction.
An overcall, bidding a suit at the 3 level or higher implies a single suited hand. In other words, partner will mentally picture all hand patterns involving a single suited hand. When you have two or more suits opposite a NT opener in competition, use a cuebid to help you out. In competition, do not bid your hand as a single suited hand when partner can assist you after a cuebid. x QJx K109xx K109x with partner overcalling a strong NT to a spade opener. They bid 2 so what is your bid? Bidding 3 is the wrong bid?. Yes it is forcing, but partner will bid 3NT 90% of the time when you wish to play in a suit. She pictures a single suited diamond hand which obviously you do not hold. You are muddying the waters. A 4 Moysean might even be the best spot. You cuebid 3 to say you do not know where to play this hand so partner assists you by bidding 4. Partner now has told you she does not have 2 spade stoppers (no severe duplication of value) so you try 5 which makes.
When to use cuebids is a hand evaluation skill. I like to limit my cuebids as a limit raise or better in partner's suit when at all possible. However, as Master Solvers directors complain, a cuebid is used whenever a partnership is stuck for a bid. This is dangerous. A double works way better.
Michaels cuebids and Unusual 2NT are either/or bids. They are weak designed to complicate the opponents auctions or very strong as strong two suiters are hard to describe. What about monster one suiters when the opponents have opened the bidding? We prefer keeping the takeout double and monster one suiters as far apart as possible. This is especially so in the balancing position as partner quite often converts for penalty when we do not want her to. Charles Goren almost had the right idea to describe these hands. He suggested a direct cue bid to describe these monster hands. We think a Goren cuebid is the device to show these one suited monsters but a jump cuebid.
Playing a jump cuebid as natural is a terrible waste of a good bid. Yes, I know they open bad minors so you could hold 7 of them so back in later. Jump cuebids in the major ask partner to bid 3NT with a stopper in the opponent's suit. Why not make these bids as an either/or bid also? When you now pull 3NT to your suit, you have slam on your mind. You can make these jump cuebids with any monster one suiter.
One bidding theorist came up with the idea of coded responses when partner makes a jump cuebid in the minor or major. These jump cuebids in the opponent's minor still ask partner to bid 3NT as with the major but just respond controls when you do not have a stopper. When partner bid 3, she has one or less, a response of 3 shows two or more. Partner knows where the hand is going to be played, she just does not what level.
A jump cuebid in the major works the same. You want to be in 3NT but if partner does not have a stopper in their suit, automated control showing is in effect. She bids 4 with 1 or less and 4 with two or more.
Let's try out some hands. x Axx AKQJ10xx Jx.
1 to your right so you bid 3. Partner has no spade stopper so she bids 4 saying she has one or less control. You sign off in 4 as that is probably too high already. If partner bids 4 showing two or more controls, you can bid 5 or if your hand was stronger bid normal Blackwood.
OK now the jump cuebids in the minors. These are control asking bids similar to the Barton strain when partner does not bid 3NT. I do not like control asking bids in theory as they are too single handed. However, what better time to be single handed when you have a monster one suiter?
I held this hand playing with my regular partner the other night. AKQJxxx AKxx x x, RHO opened 1. Over 3 bid by me puts partner in a straight jacket so he must show controls if no stopper. Partner bids 3 showing two or more controls. I bid 4NT (straight Blackwood), with one ace, I contract for a spade slam so that makes for +1430. If the opponents interfere, DOPI is in effect. Double shows the first step and pass the 2nd step.
Here is a hand from the Bridge World. RHO opens 1, you have AKQJxxxx void Ax AJx. The popular BWS response was to make a takeout double. A double is horribly inadequate in my opinion. Bid a jump cuebid of 3, partner bids 4 showing 2 or more controls. As she did not bid 3NT as requested, these controls must be outside the heart suit, specifically the two minor suit kings! You now have 12 tricks and the odds that the club queen being with the opening bidder or suit establishment/squeeze possibilities you bid 7. Try getting their any other way!
Watched Stan Cabay for a few rounds tonight to attempt to learn something about the match point game. Stan held Ax QJxxx Axx K10x and partner vulnerable opened 1 and RHO bid 3 so what do you bid? You have 5 trump, your cards are all controls and if the opponents have the missing spade cards, which is highly probable, all your cards all pulling their full weight. You do not pre-empt over a pre-empt so 4 means that you feel you can make 4. 4 is a cuebid that shows hearts and is a slam try. I would bid 4 in match points and 4 in IMPS. In match points you do not chase slams so if slam is there you bite the bullet and take your fix. In IMPS, I think you have to make a push even though on rare occasions 5 could go down. The opponents may have told you how to play the hand so finding cards might be easier and if partner has no duplication in spades, slam is odds on. Stan bid 4 and he was right as only one pair in the field bid slam. You can make 7 on careful play but you missing the trump king. 4 is a bit singlehanded but actually bidding 4 is also. You are discouraging partner from any slam with a hand that would make slam on a normal or good day.
Stan gave me a hand that bRings up a pet annoyance of mine. The expert overuse of cuebids. The bidder is Eric Kokish and his partner opens 1 and Eric holds KQ10xxx Axx xx Qx and RHO bids 3.
Eric bid 3 and partner bids 4. Now what? There is no right bid so Eric used a 4 cuebid as a waiting bid. If partner bids 4 he is happy or if partner bids 4 he can take a stab at a Moysean. O.K. now up on my soap box. The notion that a cuebid can show a strong hand, a 1st round control, a 2nd round control, imply a fit for opener, ask for a control in that suit or just a waiting bid just confuses the issue. Even an expert partner has to be confused with the ambiguity of that bid! I think cue-bidding 4 on this hand is just like the little boy crying wolf. You may never trust the cuebid again! 4 on this auction (at the 4 level) should show a diamond control either showing a powerful spade hand or support for clubs. Partner is entitled to leap to 6 with her doubleton diamond and tell Mr. Kokish where he can put his cuebid! To make the bid so ambiguous renders it almost useless.
You open 1 with xx AQxxx KJx Axx, partner bids 2NT. You bid 3 waiting, partner bids 3. You comply with 4, partner bids 4. Now bells start to ring. Neither side was strong enough to bid Serious 3NT so there is no slam so you sign off in 4. Both sides were cue-bidding in case the other had a hand strong enough to bid a Serious 3NT but it did not happen but you are still under game. Stay there.
In 4th suit forcing auctions sometimes the only way to get to the desired contract is taking control after being a good listener first. Do not take control too early but try to glean as much information as you can. Sometimes your hand is just plain un-biddable so do not even try. Just lie low and then take control.
Take this hand: xx Axx KJx AKQJ10
1 by you, partner bids a diamond so you temporize by bidding a heart. Partner bids 2 which you play as 4th suit forcing. Resist the urge to do something spectacular with this hand as partner has forced to game! You bid a quiet 3, partner bids 3. Partner has a game forcing hand with at least 5 do you need more to take control of the hand? You bid 4, partner bids 4. 4NT by you is Blackwood. You ask for Aces followed by the queen of trump which partner shows along with the K of spades, 5D, 5C and leads to 7NT.
Bidding Blackwood or cue-bidding is the most obvious way to take control. There are times not to take control also. I was playing with a Pitbull who held a nice 7-4 in the blacks. She opened 1, LHO doubled. I bid 1 so the Pitbull bid 1. I continued with 1NT and she showed her nice 7-4 with a 3 bid. I heard that but I bid 3NT. The Pitbull persevered by bidding 4 Blackwood. This is the wrong time to take control. When you have adequately described your hand to partner but she shows no sign of life taking control is redundant. I passed this Blackwood making exactly 4. Quoting the Bard to take control or not to take control that is the question.
A universal hand evaluation concept in Bridge is the death response. This concept needs to be well understood for good partnership bidding. This bid occurs to slow partner down when she wants bigger and better things or using conventions that are seeking the same. The death response is an all cases is returning to the agreed trump suit at any leveler 3NT. The death response is part of partnership bidding, so prevents solo artists from single handedly placing the contract. Think of the death response as fast arrival to your contract even though it may be at the two level!
Back Peddling is another form of the death response. You do not have a good rebid with a 20 HCP hand with a club suit so you decide to open 2. At your first opportunity and from then on, put on the breaks to show that you are all in with your first bid. When I open 2 followed by jumping in my suit it shows a self sufficient suit and demands that partner shows a control if she has one. When I jump to game this is a death response (fast arrival). Of course, the death response is returning to my trump suit, if there are no controls. The next bid is suit asking where a return to the suit is also the death response and the first step shows the queen. Generalizations for death responses are easy on the memory.
Sometimes you decide to take the aggressive route with your first bid. At your first opportunity you should slow down the auction. Partner held Ax AJx Qxx AQxxx and opened 1. They overcalled 1 and I bid 2 so you decide that you want to be on the aggressive side and cuebid 2. Fine, but now partner bids 3 so now what? You cuebid in rank order, so partner lacks the King of clubs so you should slow her down with a 3 bid. This death response says I am minimum or all in for my previous cuebid. What if you held either the club or diamond king with the same hand? You now show that you are maximum for your first bid by cue-bidding 3. Ambiguous bids like cuebids (wide range) need to be refined and clarified during the auction.
This hand came up xxxx AKJx x AKxx.
Partner opens a spade, you splinter in diamonds which gets doubled. Partner passes and RHO bids 5.Now what? What information has partner given you with her pass? The death response in these splinter auctions is returning to the trump suit. Partner would do that with duplication of value in diamonds. A redouble by partner is a cuebid with a diamond control. A pass is leaving bidding room open for partner's cuebid as I do not have diamond wastage. On this auction, you have an easy 6 bid based on partner's pass.
The auction goes:
1 | 1 | Pass | 2 |
Pass | 2* |
* Is this a 6 card spade suit? No, partner's hands is AKQx x xxxx Q10xx and she is just giving the death response in reply to your cuebid. The auction goes a little differently with the opponents doubling your cuebid this time. With this slightly different auction, the 2 bid is the death response with distribution and pass is the death response without distribution. This is because the opponents gave you the luxury of a redouble. Partnerships can agree on the meaning of a redouble. I play the redouble as showing cards at this low level rather than a cuebid.
Susan and Kiz had an auction recently that brings the redouble into the mix.
2 | Pass | Pass | 2 |
Pass | 3 | Dbl | ? |
Since you have the redouble in the mix at a low level, you can have two death responses. A pass would show a minimum with a lack of distribution and a bid shows a minimum with more distribution. The redouble takes on the normal meaning of the pass showing extra since this is at a low level. If the auction were at a much higher level, the redouble would be a cuebid, so a pass would be a good hand.
When you have opened light, partner has made a strong bid like Jacoby 2NT or cuebid, the death response is returning to the trump even if it is freely bid.
1 | Pass | 2NT | 4 |
4 |
4 is the death response as it is fast arrival to your game. Pass is stronger as you leave room for cue-bidding. The death response even prevents cue-bidding from happening so keeps partner's delusions of grandeur in check.
Tom Gandolfo demonstrated this recently. The auction went:
1 | 1 | 2 | Dbl |
3* |
* 3 by Tom. What's that mean? It is the death response saying that I have nothing but my bare minimum but with distribution. I did not redouble and I did not cuebid, which are all stronger bids. A pass would show a flattish minimum.
After a takeout double you need a death response when partner now cuebids to show a strong hand. You hold xx xxxx xxxx xxx, the auction goes:
1 | Dbl | Pass | 2 |
Pass | 2 | Pass | ? |
You suck it up, bid 3 as a death response. Your range is very wide on these auctions (0-9 HCP).
If you held the same distro but xx KJxx Kxxx xxx , you now bid 3 after the cuebid. Since you did not make the death response, partner now knows you have some values. It is not changing suits to find a better spot. Partner with his cuebid is asking a simple Yes/No question. Do you have something or not? Death response says sorry, you have struck out partner. When you have way more than you announced initially, make an unassuming cuebid or jump to game. You have x KJxxx Kxxx xxx, I would cuebid after partner's cuebid because this is a super maximum in light of the original 2 bid.
Here is an auction with Perry where the death response concept comes to the fore. Jx KQ10x KQxxxx Q. Perry opened 1, I replied 1 and Parry bid 2. I bid 3 so what is your bid? You have a choice of 3, 3 or 3NT. 3 is out as you barely have an opener so you want to slow this auction down. 3NT shows soft values, a heart stopper and is the death response. What can be easier? Partner reluctantly passes 3NT which is much better than the 6 reached after you bid 3 to show your shape. Partner thinks you have a good 2 bid, since you did not make the death response of 3NT.
When partner has opened some number of NT, the death response is 3NT. When partner is making a slam try and you return to 3NT you are answering his question with a resounding NO. If you are investigating a minor suit slam at the 4 level, 4NT is the death response suggesting that we play the contract at this level. NT slows down all slam try auctions so is the proverbial wet blanket. Players do not make enough minor slam tries at the 4 level because they forget that you have 4NT as the death response to bail out. Worse still, they think 4NT is KCB in a minor orientated auction. Nonsense.
Actually any NT bid when investigating a slam is a death response. Partner reverting to NT to show soft values and to discourage further bidding is a death response. I opened 1NT and they bid 2 for the majors. Partner held xx void J109xx AQJ109x so despite have only 8 HCP if partner has the magical hand with not too much in hearts or the majors, slam is possible. Partner decided to improvise so instead of bidding 4NT for the minors, he bid 3 which pretty well describes his void in hearts and his slam intentions. Partner puts the brakes on with 3NT but they bid 4 vulnerable. Partner makes a forcing pass so around to the NT opener who now bids 4NT. This is the 2nd time the brakes were applied on this auction as partner could bid a minor to co-operate. Doubling should show defense measured in controls as they should have their trump suit all but wrapped up. 4NT should show soft values so let's get our 10 tricks fast and should also discourage further bidding. You get the message and sign off in 5 which makes. Partner either is cooperating with you or not so it is best to listen.
The death response and Last Train slam tries go together. You hold A10xx AKQJx x Axx, and open 1 with partner responding 1, you splinter to 4. Partner bids 4 the dreaded death response so should you give up? Yes, as that bid shows severe duplication of value in diamonds. OK, how do you show mild slam interest then? 4 by responder is not giving a choice of contracts as it's a Bridge axiom once you found a fit you do not try and find another fit. The 4 bid is a Last Train slam try saying you do not have duplication of value but you do not have a cuebid. In addition, you cannot bid Blackwood. Say a hand like KQxxx xx xxx QJ10 where you do not want to give up on slam but you need partner to take the initiative. Klimo has invented another bid in these auctions which is a 5 telling bid. Since you are playing with a 30 pt deck in these auctions, 5 says I have no duplication of value, nothing to cuebid and can not bid Blackwood but I have excellent trump. You place the contract.
Kantar has defined some suit asking bids after KCB auctions. The death response is always to return to the trump suit so everything else is up the line. If the trump suit is spades, partner makes a suit ask in hearts n 6 is xxx and up the line shows better cards. 1st step the Kx, 2nd step x and third step KQx.
The principle of fast arrival is a death response. When you want to discourage partner from bigger and better things you jam her out of exploration room and leap to game. Failing to cuebid when given a chance is obviously a death response. In competitive auctions, returning to our suit as opposed to passing is a death response. A pass leaves room for exploration therefore is a stronger action in most cases. Partners quite often have visions of bigger and better things. Sometimes you need to slow her down.
Cue-bidding auctions are slam try auctions. Did your hand get any better on the auction? There are shades of gray for a cuebid, do you have a minimum for your previous bid or a maximum? Partner wants to know or she would not have initiated a cue-bidding auction. A local couple hand this auction.
1 | 2 | 3 | Pass |
4 |
Opener had a huge hand with a void in the vulnerable overcall suit AQ1098x Axx KQ10x void. Responder used hand evaluation skills to upgrade a 2 call to a cuebid xxx Jxxx Ax Axxx. Two Aces are just too strong for a 2 bid so you promote you balanced 9 HCP to a cuebid. Partner bids 4 so your minimum cuebid has become worse as there is a danger that partner has a club void. You warn partner of the danger by making the death response of 4 and that ends the auction. Cue-bidding 4 means that you have extra or partner's cuebid helped your hand. It does not deny this Ace as partner can always ask for it later via KCB. A cuebid is a range bid, so you either encourage partner or slow her down.
Only one death response per customer. If there has been a cuebid or a systemic bid promising a fit for partner, the only death response is returning to the suit. This means the cheapest NT can have a meaning defined by the partnership. If there has been a major suit implied fit with a cuebid, we prefer 2NT to ask for shortness.
1 | 1 | 2 | Pass |
2NT* | |||
* 2NT asks for a singleton as you do not need to suggest an alternative contract in NT.
With a minor implied fit, the goal is to get to 3NT so 2NT should be forcing after a cuebid but natural.
1 | 1 | 2 | Pass |
2NT* |
* 2NT is natural and forcing.
In some cases 2NT is a waiting bid, if you had a death response available.
1 | Pass | 1NT | 2 |
Pass | 2* | ||
* 2, a strong diamond raise 2NT waiting and asking for further clarification. 3 is the only non forcing bid.
Unassuming cuebids get the name because partner is not to assume that you are showing a control by cue-bidding. If there ever was a depending on context bid, the unassuming cuebid is it. This particular cuebid shows strength with game or slam interest rather than a control showing cuebid. The direct cuebid normally flashes the dual signal that we have a fit with undisclosed values. With a minor fit established, the unassuming cuebid turns into the Western cue bid which asks partner to bid 3NT with a stopper.
The context of the auction determines the meaning of a cuebid. A two suiter and a forcing NT are a very poor mixture. With two suits, its best to make a light 2/1 rather than complicate the auction with a forcing NT initially. My partner opened 1 with AKQJ10x xx J987 x and I bid a forcing 1NT with xxx AK10x AQx xxx. The opponents backed in 2, partner bid 2 and RHO bid 3. The opponents certainly do not have HCP's for their bidding but certainly should have the club suit wrapped up. When the clubs are 6-3-3-1 or 5-4-3-1, partner has a singleton club, so the 30 HCP rule kicks in. I made an unassuming cuebid of 4 to say although I bid a mere 1NT initially, I am interested in a spade slam. This gets doubled so when partner lacks a club control, he bids the death response of 4. A redouble would show 1st round control and a pass or cuebid a 2nd round control. I now cuebid 4 as I want to find out if partner shares my slam interests. Partner bids 4 as he lacks a heart control obviously so I make one last try of 5. Partner has nothing more than he announced thus far, so he signs off in 5 which ends the auction. 6 makes because K10x is on side but you do not want to be near slam.
The unassuming cuebid is a very handy bid to say to partner we have a major suit fit without really supporting partner directly.The most common use for the bid is after takeout doubles where you must confirm we have found a major suit fit. In addition, I have values and am maximum for my previous bidding.
Two hands from yesterday really show the usefulness of the unassuming cuebid. First a Maurice and Susan auction.
xx J10xx Qx A109xx and the auction goes 1 - DBL - P - ?
Do you bid 2 or 2?. I think this hand is worth two bids in a competitive situation so I prefer 2. I will back in with hearts later and I have informed partner that I have some values in light of not jumping earlier. If I had nothing, I would bid 2 and shut up unless partner forces me to bid.
Anyway Susan did bid 2 and partner now bids 2! Your hand in support of hearts is a monster considering you only bid 2 previously. How do I show partner that he has struck gold? Unassuming cuebid to the rescue. The only reason I can cuebid now when I did not previously is that we found a major suit fit. A jump to 4 should say that we can make game but since we are jamming the auction it should lack a control. You confirm the fit by bidding 2, partner cuebids 3 and you cuebid 4 which causes partner to bid 6 which is cold. If you had a singleton spade with the same hand, you could bid 3 instead of 2 and partner would get the message.
A Lorna/BJ auction shows another auction where unassuming cuebid works well. The auction goes:
x J9x J1098xx AKx
1 | Dbl | Pass | 3 |
Pass | 3 | Pass | ? |
You want to bid 4 but you are too strong in light of your previous bid to do so. 4 sounds like you were forced to bid it by partner. This is not the context where you can bid 4 as an advanced cuebid as partner will always think you were just bidding a suit without heart support. The unassuming cuebid to the rescue. Bid 3 so partner knows that you have heart support and you leave room for cue-bidding. Partner bids 4 and now you bid 5 or 4NT with 6 being cold when you get there.
Tom and I had a hand that shows unassuming cuebids in action. Tom held Kxxxx A AKxxxx x and overcalled 1 with 2, my first cuebid should show a limit raise or better in diamonds.
1 | 2 | Pass | 2 |
Dbl | 2 | 3 | 4 |
Pass | ? |
I chose to make a 2nd unassuming cuebid as he must have made a bid that improves my hand further. I probably feel that I am too strong to bid 4. When that's the case, you can leap to 6 giving me a choice of contracts. I convert to 6 with A1098 J10x QJ AKxx. The play is simple as the opponents opened a non opener with QJxx KQxxxx x Qx. All this does is locate cards for Tom. Tom and I have 29 HCP between us so it's pretty simple to play the vulnerable opener for the rest of the HCP's and play the spades correctly to make our spade slam.
I think the unassuming cuebid should always be used in auctions to clarify KCB. I hate leaping to 4NT as KCB based on the last bid suit. All this means to me is that you are too lazy to make an unassuming cuebid first? This hand came up tonight AQ x KQJxx AQJxx, with everybody vulnerable RHO opened 2, you doubled and LHO bid 3 and partner freely bid 3. If you were interested in a spade slam, you cuebid 4 and if partner bids 4, 4NT must be KCB. I feel in the absence of a cuebid, a leap to 4NT should say pick a minor.
Here is the ultimate unassuming cuebid auction where you use 4NT to show a spade cuebid.
xxx J AKxx AQ10xx
3 | 4 | Pass | 4 |
Pass | 4NT | Pass | ? |
When 4 is an unassuming cue bid just to show a strong hand, use 4NT to show a spade cuebid as it does not change the level of bidding. It cannot be Blackwood as partner does not know what is going on with partner's unassuming cuebid action so he is captain of the ship. The 4 bidder held void AKQ10xx QJxx KJx, so a grand slam can be investigated.
After you have made an assuming cuebid to show strength, a 2nd cuebid in the same suit has the dual message of extra strength and a control in that suit. Tom Gandolfo in Red Deer held KQJ10xx void Ax Kxxxx. The opponents opened 3, I doubled and Tom made an unassuming cuebid of 4 to show his strength. I bid 4 so Tom now makes a 2nd cuebid to clarify the 1st one showing a slam going hand with a control in diamonds. This gives us a chance to get to our cold grand slam in either black suit.
The trouble with depending on context bids is that partner has to be on the same wavelength as you are. Knowing the difference between unassuming cuebids and a control showing cuebids is a bidding skill. That is what established partnerships are all about though. Understandings and treatments enrich the language of bidding. With this increased bidding vocabulary, you paint a better of your hand so exceptional Bridge results follow.
Why did the dog not bark? Therein lies the clue to solving the mystery says Sherlock Holmes. In Bridge, the most common negative inference in competitive auctions is “why did partner not support you” or compete when she had the chance? The answer in almost all cases, means that she is trump deprived or HCP deprived or both. There is a reason for a pass. Missed inferences are the most common mistake of all in the game of Bridge. You just do not tune into the right frequency that fills the air waves at the Bridge table. Your partner is your most reliable source.
My partner held this meager collection Qx QJ10x 10987xx x vulnerable vs vulnerable opponents with a spade opener to his right. He passed and they bid 1NT which partner doubles. The opener now bids 2 so you compete with a 2 bid. With your one and only chance to bid, it is probably better to bid 2, as a major is more constructive towards game. Partner obviously holds hearts on this auction but may not have diamonds. Do not be fixated on your own hand. The 1NT bidder now bids 2 but partner does not compete and passes. The opener bidder also passes so what is going on? You have 5 HCP but they die in a partial at the two level. This means that the HCP’s should be evenly distributed between the two sides. This gives partner at least 15 HCP yet she did not compete to 3. This should mean she is short in diamonds. She has a maximum of 3 spades on the auction and is short in diamonds. She probably has a club/heart two suiter with defense and cannot bid hearts at the 3 level due to the possible misfit.
Now it’s your turn to take negative inferences into account. You are not going to compete with a double which shows defense and values. You are going to bid 3 which must be based on distribution since you did not double. Do you have a cuebid available as you did not double? Yes, you do but how would partner interpret it? Say you cuebid 3. This would probably mean you have nice long diamonds so you are showing a club control for a possible NT game. xx xx KJ1098x QJx would come to mind. You want to compete again to 3 but invite 3NT along the way with the long diamond suit. You can not hold hearts on this auction as it is obvious partner holds that suit and you failed to bid them naturally.
Partner's hand is AJ10 AKxxx void Kxxxx so certainly did not want to compete to 3. 6 is on a finesse vulnerable though. You compete to 3, partner raises to 4 and a routine +650 results.
Do not make ambiguous cuebids when you have clear cut natural bids available. A cuebid or a double quite often means you do not have a natural bid available so you grope with a cuebid. Partner is always going to take the inference that if you choose an artificial bid, it means that you do not have a natural bid at your disposal. Proper care and feeding of partner is to simplify bidding auctions. Sometimes you miss a 5-4 heart fit if you do not. Partner was making a prepared bid with her double. She was planning to pull your 2 bid to 2 to show a heart/club two suiter. She was also describing her quick tricks with a double in case the hand is a total misfit. You may have wanted to double their contract. Let opponents play misfits.
Sometimes a decision to bid means making the most practical bid that would lead to game. Sometimes you make a prepared bid in order to compete again. Many experts would bid 2 directly with Qx QJ10x 10987xx x as making the most constructive bid towards a 4 game. Anticipating that they might compete to 2 leaves the option of you backing in 3 to compete. Quite often in these auctions the minor is the longer suit. Planning ahead and anticipating the opponent’s moves is where Bridge and Chess merge. Bidding naturally is constructive.
Partner had another hand that shows the philosophy of always making the most constructive bid towards the objective of getting to a game. He holds Kx x AQJ10xx J109x, RHO opens 1 so he overcalled 2 and they bid 2. Partner bids 3 which is forcing one round in accordance with your overcall style. What do you bid? Since partner has forced you to come up with a bid, choose the practical bid. You have stoppers in both black suits so bid 3NT. A bid of 4 is redundant and bypasses a 9 trick game which is the holy grail when holding minors. I held QJx AKxxxx Kx xx and a 9 trick NT game is cold. If you choose to bid 4, that is where you play it for a diamond partial. Why bypass 3NT if you are not forced to go beyond that level?
This theme of choosing the most practical bid towards game comes up very frequently in your decision to make a bid. A very common one is when partner makes a takeout double. You have a nice minor but you also have a stopper in their suit. Which bid is more constructive towards game? Bid NT instead of the minor as you may get to the nice 9 trick game. If you bid your minor, 3NT might be bypassed later in the auction if the opponents disturb things. Bidding 2 of a minor is non constructive towards the objective of getting to game and ambiguous as to HCP’s and stoppers.