(Courtesy of Bob Crosby)
The Vinnies had a very tough auction in Calgary compliments of Mr. Willard and Mr. Fowlie doing their dirty work. Osama held Axxxx Qxxx Jxx A and heard his partner open 1 everybody vulnerable. Mr. Willard paid his card fees so he overcalls 2 and Osama bid 4 and RHO bids 5 and around to Mr. Nowlan. This is an obvious forcing pass scenario so Vince chooses the pass option which shows a better hand then doubling or bidding 5 in their system. Around to Osama for the decision. He does not have much extra then he has already shown from his previous bidding but with partner's pass, slam is possible. The Bridge World has a bid for these sequences which cuebid purists would not like. Even at the 5 level, 5 which is a bid under the trump suit, is a Last Train slam try. At this rarefied level, he cannot cuebid his black aces nor does he want to give up. I quote from Bridge World standard 2001.
Last Train: Any time there is only one call that indicates slam interest or further slam interest without raising the partnership's level of commitment, it is a Last Train slam-try, unrelated to the strain named (unless followed by an uninvited further action like a try for seven).
A Last Train slam try is not a cuebid. It is a bid below the trump suit level without forcing the partnership past the level they are already at to show further slam interest. A last desperate attempt at slam so to speak, without showing any control in the suit bid. It usually means I have a cuebid or two but I cannot show them without raising the level. Mr. Nowlan had x AKJxx KQ10xx xx and definitely would accept the slam try. Should Mr. Nowlan have bid 5 over 5? Not really unless you wanted to be in 7 off the diamond ace, as Osama was still unlimited. He had a choice between a 5 bid which says I can make 5 based on the bidding or the stronger bid of passing show mild slam interest. If Osama had made the Last Train slam try, Vince should bid 6 saying I have no Aces outside the trump suit so 7 needs everything from your end.
In my opinion Osama could bid 5 as a Last Train slam try. It does not commit the level any higher, it just says I cannot bid slam on my own but I am damn close. He had a spade cuebid but could not do it as that forced the partnership to slam. It is also a blame transfer as the ball goes back to Mr. Nowlan's court. Partner should have hidden Aces for this type of bid so the strong trump and the two suiter should be enough to bid slam. You would be surprised how often splinters and Last Train complement each other. The opponents had an easier ride at our table as we were not in the auction. Most tables got to 6 without the Willard factor.
In a recent match Maurice held A10xx AKQJx x Axx and opened 1 and Klimo his partner bid 1. This brought about a splinter to 4 and Klimo bid 4. This brought about the dangerous bid of Blackwood which forced the auction to the 5 level which went down. When partner signs off in 4 in these auctions he means it as he has horrible duplication of value in diamonds. Why? because he could have made the Last Train slam try by bidding 4 if he did not have duplication of value in diamonds. Once you have found a fit, it is useless to find another fit, therefore 4 has a meaning attached to it. It also happens to be one level below the trump suit.
Tom Gandolfo gave a hand where he used partner's splinter suit as the Last Train slam try at the 5 level. He opened 1, they overcalled 1 so partner leapt to 4. Tom could not take control via KCB as he lacked a club control. He bid 5 as the Last Train slam try. Partners should always ask themselves, why did partner not use KCB instead of a cuebid? Partner was looking at the club Ace so he bid 6 and that made.
The Last Train concept was invented by Rodwell/Meckstroth to compliment their Serious 3NT theory. The Bridge World does not endorse Serious 3NT in the Bridge World 2001 system but they included their Last Train concept as part of Bridge World Standard. Obviously this understanding is for very fine tuned expert partnerships only.
When is a cuebid not a cuebid? if an auction has gone near the game level too fast as a result of a splinter, pre-emption by the opponents or just cue-bidding the rank order of suits. You may have reached the game level too quickly and do not want to go to the dreaded 5 level. You still have slam interest but a cuebid will get you past game or the level of your commitment as the Bridge World calls it. If you bid the suit just below the trump suit, it is never and I repeat never a cuebid. It says I have a cuebid somewhere else so I cannot bid KCB because of a flaw. The negative inference that you did not bid KCB should be a trigger to identify Last Train slam tries.
Splinters bring out the Last Train cuebid the most often but it occurs in other auctions also. I had Qx AQ1098x Qxx Ax and BJ opened 1 and I bid 2. BJ splintered to 4 so I am interested in slam but I have a flaw, no diamond control. BJ could be AKJ10xx KJxx Jx x or similar hands without a diamond control. I bid 4 as a Last Train slam try saying I do not have a control in diamonds but I have a control in a lower ranking suit and I am still interested. BJ knowing that I am still interested will take control with KCB if he has the diamond control. The opening bid is one suit, the trump suit is another, the splinter suit is another so the bid just under the trump suit is the Last Train non cuebid. Since we have three suits accounted for so if we had the 4th suit, it begs the question why did we not just bid KCB? The answer is because we do not have that suit so we have defined the Last Train slam try during the auction.
A while back Maurice had a rock AKxx AKQxx x Axx and opened 1. Klimo bid 1 and Maurice bid 4. Klimo made the death response of 4 as his hand was decimated by the splinter bid. Maurice bid 4NT and they were too high and lost 13 IMPS. Klimo said he would have made the Last Train slam try of 4 if he could not cuebid anything and he did not have wastage in diamonds.
Last Train can occur in overcall situations. You hold AKxxxx xxx x Axx and the opponents open 1. You overcall 1 and they bid 3 and partner cuebids 4. You do not want to go to the 5 level nor do you want to discourage partner by bidding 4 (the death response). You bid the suit under the trump suit as a Last Train slam try so you reach your spade slam. The death response of 4 ends the auction.
Some sample auctions to further describe the concept:
1 | Pass | 2 | Pass |
2 | Pass | 3 | Pass |
3NT | Pass | 4 | |
4 |
You have Serious slam interest via your 3NT bid. Since partner has denied a club control you must have it or you would have signed off in 4. You are telling partner that you have a club control by still trying for slam. If you had a heart control, you would have bid KCB. Subtle inference.
1 | Pass | 2 | Pass |
2 | Pass | 3 | Pass |
3NT | Pass | 4 |
You have denied a spade control by bidding 3NT. I have a spade control but I can not bid it below game. I do not have a club control or I would have bid it so I am making a last try at slam with the spade control.
1 | Pass | 2 | Pass |
2 | Pass | 3 | Pass |
3NT | Pass | 4 | Pass |
4 |
The 4 bid is a last try for slam saying I do not have a diamond control but I am still interested via overall strength. You still may have a diamond control so I do not want to give up.
1 | Pass | 2 | Pass |
2 | Pass | 3 | Pass |
4 | Pass | 4 |
4 was a courtesy cuebid so 4 is an asking last slam try attempt. It says I do not have a diamond control but I am still interested in slam.
1 | Pass | 2 | Pass |
2 | Pass | 3 | Pass |
4 | Pass | 4 |
Since the 4 bidder denies a club control, 4 must say I still have interest and the club control but I still do not have enough to take control by bidding 4NT. Over to you.
1 | Pass | 2 | Pass |
2 | Pass | 3 | Pass |
4 |
This is simply a diamond control showing no spade or club control and no Serious slam interest.